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Author Topic: When did we become a singular noun?  (Read 3063 times)

Scratch

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When did we become a singular noun?
« on: June 12, 2009, 05:26:22 am »

Have I become a curmudgeon?
Lately I hear public speakers refer more and more to “The United States” when addressing our country.
What happened to these United States?
When did we become a singular noun? It seems somehow wrong.
 I may be splitting hairs, but I don’t remember the States relinquishing their sovereignty to a monolithic entity. In fact, some states have reasserted their sovereignty in their own body of law. I see that as a positive. People may have stopped watching television long enough to realize they don’t owe allegiance to a gang of white-collar thieves in the capitol.
While a DVD about the Constitution may not be as entertaining as “Dancing with the stars”, at least it won’t turn the viewer’s brain to hummus.
And it just might help one understand these United States.
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EwB

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #1 on: June 12, 2009, 01:45:44 pm »

this peculiar train of thought is best known to been advanced by Lincoln.  That is when the view of a singular union as the country was formed vs. the view of a group of individual States that formed as these United States.

EwB
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Scratch

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #2 on: June 12, 2009, 01:58:39 pm »

Ah, yes. The constant references to the 'Union', when in fact the so-called Union was prosecuting the bloodiest warfare in history upon itself.
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'the greatest dangers to liberty lurk in insidious encroachment by men of zeal, well-meaning but without understanding.'

Supreme Court Justice Louis Brandeis

SSgt_USAF_vet

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #3 on: June 12, 2009, 05:25:34 pm »

Which is why I try my best NOT to use the common forms seen today and opt for the following:
  • the States united
  • uSA
  • united States

I often underline the small "u" to let the reader know that its not a typo.
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dogsledder54

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #4 on: June 12, 2009, 06:31:12 pm »

Ah, yes. The constant references to the 'Union', when in fact the so-called Union was prosecuting the bloodiest warfare in history upon itself.

Like Gallagher said- "Why do they call them apartments when they're all stuck together ? Why do we drive on a parkway, and park on a driveway ?
   :laugh:
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DPR 2006

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #5 on: June 13, 2009, 01:41:40 am »

Ah, yes. The constant references to the 'Union', when in fact the so-called Union was prosecuting the bloodiest warfare in history upon itself.

Like Gallagher said- "Why do they call them apartments when they're all stuck together ? Why do we drive on a parkway, and park on a driveway ?
   :laugh:

Mike Warnke asked, "How do you get Teflon to stick to a skillet when nothing sticks to Teflon?!?!?!"
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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #6 on: June 13, 2009, 08:21:17 am »

Getting back to the original post; you pose a legitimate question that actually deserves a little more explanation.

When our elected officials say something like, "This plan will benefit all of us", who is the "us" in that statement? Or if we hear them say "This is good for the people of the United States"; who are the "people"? Most people assume the politician is talking about We the People - but that is an erred assumption.

Allow me to illustrate:
Suppose you are watching television and the owner of McDonald's is making a speech. During that speech he says something like, "...And we at McDonald's make the best food we can..." - would you assume that he is referring to you (provided you aren't an employee of the resturant)? Of course not; for his statement to include you you would have to be an employee of that corporation, right? Since you understand that you aren't an employee of that corporation, i.e. you understand your relationship to that company, there is no confusion. But this is exactly where most citizens of the united States get it wrong; they don't understand their relationship to the Government, as such, they make the mistake of believing statements like the above include them. They don't understand that the 'Government' is merely a corporation, and when the Government says "we" they aren't referring to the People of America, usually.

Volume 20: Corpus Juris Sec. § 1785
"The United States government is a foreign corporation with respect to a State"
http://www.scribd.com/doc/6516011/The-United-States-Government-is-a-Foreign-Corporation-With-Respect-to-a-State

“It is suggested that the United States is to be regarded as a domestic corporation, so far as the State of New York is concerned. We think this contention has no support in reason or authority. A domestic corporation is the creature of this state created by its legislature, or located here and created by or under the laws of the United States. (Code of Civil Pro., § 3343, sub. 18.) The United States is a government and body politic and corporate, ordained and established by the American people acting through the sovereignty of all the states.”
In re Merriam’s Estate, 36 N.E. 505 (1894)
http://www.reddit.com/r/CommonLaw/comments/79ra9/is_the_us_a_corporation/

"... But by the Act of June 11, 1878 (20 Stat. chap. 180), a permanent form of government for the District was established. It provided ...and that the commissioners therein provided for should be deemed and taken as officers of such corporation."
The District of Columbia v. Henry E. Woodbury, 136 U.S. 472 (1890)

In UNITED STATES CODE, Title 28, in Section 3002 Definitions, it states the following:
(15) "United States" means—
(A) a Federal corporation;

I shouldn't then surprize you that one can buy stock in the 'United States' on Wall Street and that 'United States' is registered as a business.

There are a number of websites that talk about this; here are a few:
http://www.serendipity.li/jsmill/us_corporation.htm
http://www.wayofkings.net/history.htm

I'm sure that many of you already know this information but it never hurts to share the information.
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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #7 on: June 13, 2009, 10:04:45 am »

After reading the above twice, I must ask... Are we the people of the United States?  Are we the people that live in these United States?  So, which is correct as to the content to this thread?  these, the, The United States?
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da gooch

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #8 on: June 13, 2009, 10:19:29 am »

Speaking only for myself .... I prefer that I am considered as one of We the People of these united States.
[Capitalization and or lack thereof is intentional.]

The United States is the corporation bent on subjugating We the People and herding us into the One World Government scheme.
I want no part of that whole "game". 
I would, however, volunteer to be helpful in peacefully but permanently dismantling it and replacing it with the original Constitutional Republic.
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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #9 on: June 13, 2009, 10:35:21 am »

"and herding us into the One World Government scheme"

I liked the way you say it as it is gooch.  When O went to the concentration camp this past week, my first thought was that he is in the process of checking it out.  You know, finding out as much as he can of the 'how to do it'.  From what I've read, the government already plan on using the old forts and/or military bases  that have been shut down.  Read it in a couple different places, but again, I will have to go through my notes to find out where exactly I read it.  For that matter, I may have read the same article twice too.

I'm sorry, I hijacked the thread temporarily... and now back to the subject at hand...
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Scratch

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #10 on: June 15, 2009, 09:45:03 am »

Quote
Volume 20: Corpus Juris Sec. § 1785
"The United States government is a foreign corporation with respect to a State"
http://www.scribd.com/doc/6516011/The-United-States-Government-is-a-Foreign-Corporation-With-Respect-to-a-State
I guess I'm shocked at my own ignorance (don't say it, gooch).
That "the United States Government" is considered under Sec. § 1785 a foreign corporation (in respect to the sovereign states) is just incredible!
But there it is in black letter law. Thanks, Sarge! You made my day.
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'the greatest dangers to liberty lurk in insidious encroachment by men of zeal, well-meaning but without understanding.'

Supreme Court Justice Louis Brandeis

da gooch

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #11 on: June 15, 2009, 01:33:03 pm »

Quote
Volume 20: Corpus Juris Sec. § 1785
"The United States government is a foreign corporation with respect to a State"
http://www.scribd.com/doc/6516011/The-United-States-Government-is-a-Foreign-Corporation-With-Respect-to-a-State
I guess I'm shocked at my own ignorance (don't say it, gooch).
That "the United States Government" is considered under Sec. § 1785 a foreign corporation (in respect to the sovereign states) is just incredible!
But there it is in black letter law. Thanks, Sarge! You made my day.

Who ?  Moi ?
Perish the thought ....   :rolleyes:




Perhaps that is why I sometimes get called Mr Badger ....   :ph34r:
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Scratch

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #12 on: June 15, 2009, 02:54:25 pm »

Okay, let me hoist this and see who salutes.
When the government of the United States makes a law, it doesn't expect a state (or commonwealth) to make its own law to supersede that federal law.
Sovereign states on the other hand, say the federals needn't make laws to supersede the state laws (specifically, unconstitutional federal laws). In fact, THESE United States have recently reasserted sovereignty to make this point. How the state deals with law enforcement is up to the state.
The federals would have laws enforced uniformly, when in fact it doesn't work (immigration law being an example). Comment?
Its Miller time. :occasion14:

edited for poor syntax.
« Last Edit: June 15, 2009, 03:00:55 pm by Scratch »
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'the greatest dangers to liberty lurk in insidious encroachment by men of zeal, well-meaning but without understanding.'

Supreme Court Justice Louis Brandeis

papabug

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #13 on: June 15, 2009, 07:26:51 pm »

I believe the Civil War changed, in the mind of the fed government, the relationship of the united states (federal) to the Several States (Sovereign). Before the C.W. it was said the united states ARE and after the C.W. the united states is.....


Papabug
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dogsledder54

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Re: When did we become a singular noun?
« Reply #14 on: June 15, 2009, 08:24:34 pm »

I am Joker, an Earthling.
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